Theme 1: Theory of knowledge and theory of science
1.
In the preface to the second edition of "Critique of Pure
Reason" (page B xvi) Kant says: "Thus far it has been assumed that
all our cognition must conform to objects. On that presupposition, however, all
our attempts to establish something about them a priori, by means of concepts
through which our cognition would be expanded, have come to nothing. Let us,
therefore, try to find out by experiment whether we shall not make better
progress in the problems of metaphysics if we assume that objects must conform
to our cognition." How are we to understand this?
In the time where Kant lives, the science must contain elements
of a priori cognition, and this cognition must relate to its object. Therefore,
the object must determine about how it established in the reality (Practical
cognition of reason) and what we know about detailed fact and concept about the
object (Theoretical cognition of reason). For example, in mathematics and physics,
when Thales demonstrates the isosceles triangle. Kant points us to illustrate
that a priori concept of the isosceles triangle is already thought by Thales
inside his mind and present the isosceles triangle by constructing base on a
priori concept.
On the other hand, this theory of science is distinguished in
metaphysics. Kant defines metaphysics as “a wholly isolated speculative
cognition of reason that elevates itself entirely above all instruction from
experience”. Metaphysics is compromising only with mere conceptions, as a
consequence, metaphysics cannot consider as science. Indeed, because of this
limitation Kant assumed that if the knowledge must adhere to object, then some
of the effort will be meaningless due to the nature of metaphysics which do not
have an exact object in reality. In his own words, Kant thinks that "up to
now the procedure of metaphysics has been a mere groping, and what is the
worst, a groping among mere concepts”.
In order to adopt the metaphysics, Kant assumes the opposite way
that objects must conform to our cognition. With this method, we can have a
better understanding to set a goal or object to achieve before the real result
presented to us. For example, it is like Copernicus when he tries to explain
regarding the solar system. When he found any difficulty to make an explanation
about solar movement to the spectator, he changes his point of view that the
sun is the center and the spectator moving around it. Regarding this example,
we can try a similar way to make an experiment with metaphysics, and make an
alternative thinking like intuition. If this intuition resembles the nature of
the object, then it could be a priori, but if reversed it could be a cognition.
2.
At the end of the discussion of the definition "Knowledge
is perception", Socrates argues that we do not see and hear
"with" the eyes and the ears, but "through" the eyes and
the ears. How are we to understand this? And in what way is it correct to say
that Soctrates argument is directed towards what we in modern terms call
"empiricism"?
By using word “with” it means we are only using the eyes and the
ears to perceive something with only these organs. When using these organs, the
obtained information is only a small part that cannot be interpret as an actual
knowledge. For example, we can only get information about color and shape when
using eyes, the same as the ears to receive only sound around us.
However, when using word “through” it means that we use
something from beginning until the end to achieve specific results. Hence,
Socrates shows Theaetetus, that using “through”, he can perceive not only from the
eyes and the ears, but he can perceive the information with all his organ and
all his sense. This information than deliver to the mind and then interpreted
as useful knowledge about many things in the world.
Wikipedia describes “Empiricism is a theory which states that
knowledge comes only or primarily from sensor experience”. Based on that, the
empiricism will mainly underline experience and evidence of the object to
define a knowledge. Furthermore, in empirism, sensory experience is the only
source and secure in the certainty of knowledge. Without experience, the ratio
does not have the ability to describe anything, if anything illustrates such a
way, then it is merely an imaginary.
For this reason, we can assume that Socrates argument is same
with empiricism. Because both of them show that sensory experience is base for
the knowledge.
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